Archive for December 2016

Networking and telecommunications technologies, along with computer hardware, software, data management technology, and the people required to run and manage them, constitute an organization's:

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Networking and telecommunications technologies, along with computer hardware, software, data management technology, and the people required to run and manage them, constitute an organization's:




a. data management environment.
b. networked environment.
c. IT infrastructure.
d. information system.







Answer: C

Data management technology consists of:

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Data management technology consists of:



a. the physical hardware and media used by an organization for storing data.
b. the detailed, preprogrammed instructions that control and coordinate the computer hardware components in an information system.
c. the software governing the organization of data on physical storage media.
d. the hardware and software used to transfer data.









Answer: C

Business processes:

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Business processes:



a. include informal work practices.
b. are used primarily for sales and accounting functions.
c. are governed by information technology.
d. are logically related tasks used primarily by operational personnel.








Answer: A

A hierarchy:

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A hierarchy:



a. is based on a clear-cut division of labor.
b. is composed primarily of experts trained for different functions.
c. is a pyramid structure of rising authority and responsibility.
d. all of the above.









Answer: C

In a hierarchical organization, the upper levels consist of:

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In a hierarchical organization, the upper levels consist of:





a. managerial and professional employees.
b. managerial, professional, and technical employees.
c. professional and operational employees.
d. managerial, professional, and operational employees.







Answer: B

The field that deals with behavioral issues as well as technical issues surrounding the development, use, and impact of information systems used by managers and employees in the firm is called:

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The field that deals with behavioral issues as well as technical issues surrounding the development, use, and impact of information systems used by managers and employees in the firm is called:



a. information systems literacy.
b. information systems architecture.
c. management information systems.
d. information technology infrastructure.







Answer: C

Output:

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Output:




a. is feedback that has been processed to create meaningful information.
b. is information that is returned to appropriate members of the organization to help them evaluate the input stage.
c. transfers data to the people who will use it or to the activities for which it will be used.
d. transfers processed information to the people who will use it or to the activities for which it will be used.









Answer: D

An information system can be defined technically as a set of interrelated components that collect (or retrieve), process, store, and distribute information to support:

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An information system can be defined technically as a set of interrelated components that collect (or retrieve), process, store, and distribute information to support:






a. decision making and control in an organization.
b. communications and data flow.
c. managers analyzing the organization's raw data.
d. the creation of new products and services.




Answer: A

Which of the following choices may lead to competitive advantage (1) new products, services, and business models; (2) charging less for superior products; (3) responding to customers in real time?

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Which of the following choices may lead to competitive advantage (1) new products, services, and business models; (2) charging less for superior products; (3) responding to customers in real time?




a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3







Answer: D

Dell Computer's use of information systems to improve efficiency and implement "mass customization" techniques to maintain consistent profitability and an industry lead illustrates which business objective?

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Dell Computer's use of information systems to improve efficiency and implement "mass customization" techniques to maintain consistent profitability and an industry lead illustrates which business objective?




a. Improved flexibility
b. Improved business practices
c. Competitive advantage
d. Survival





Answer: C

The six important business objectives of information technology are new products, services, and business models; customer and supplier intimacy; survival; competitive advantage; operational excellence; and:

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The six important business objectives of information technology are new products, services, and business models; customer and supplier intimacy; survival; competitive advantage; operational excellence; and: 



a. improved flexibility.
b. improved decision making.
c. improved business practices.
d. improved efficiency.







Answer: B

The benefit of forgiveness is

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The benefit of forgiveness is





A. less emotional distress.
B. less aggression.
C. improvement of cardiovascular functioning.
D. restoration of the damaged relationship.
E. All of these choices are beneficial.








Answer: E

One type of relational transgression is

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One type of relational transgression is







A. unfaithfulness.
B. verbal hostility.
C. rage.
D. criticism in front of others.
E. All of these choices are types of relational transgressions.










Answer: E


Omid and Micayla have an agreement that he will call to tell her when he will be late from work so she won't worry. When he forgets, Micayla is upset because of what type of transgression?

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Omid and Micayla have an agreement that he will call to tell her when he will be late from work so she won't worry. When he forgets, Micayla is upset because of what type of transgression?





A. minor
B. deliberate
C. incremental
D. relational
E. significant




Answer: D

Which of the following statements accurately describes the research about "friends with benefits?"

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Which of the following statements accurately describes the research about "friends with benefits?"





A. Neither partner has any fear that feelings will go unreciprocated.
B. Neither partner has any fear of developing more serious feelings.
C. Sex and friendships almost never mix well.
D. These relationships are often problematic for the same reasons they are attractive.
E. Partners regularly check in with each other to discuss the status of their relationship.







Answer: D

Which of the following statements summarizes Scott Johnson's thoughts about his bi-racial family in the "Looking At Diversity" reading?

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Which of the following statements summarizes Scott Johnson's thoughts about his bi-racial family in the "Looking At Diversity" reading?






A. He is certain racial differences will not impact the children in his bi-racial family.
B. He is certain racial differences will significantly impact the children in his bi-racial family.
C. He is unsure how much of an impact racial differences will have on the children in his bi-racial family.
D. He is sure that they are all learning a lot and communicating frankly about the role of race in their lives.
E. Both c and d.





Answer: E

Envisioning our family members represented in a mobile, with photos of each member suspended by a thread and connected to bars containing images of other members, may help us better understand the idea that

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Envisioning our family members represented in a mobile, with photos of each member suspended by a thread and connected to bars containing images of other members, may help us better understand the idea that




A. family communication patterns vary significantly.
B. family communication is role-driven.
C. family communication is involuntary.
D. families are systems.
E. family communication is formative.







Answer: D

Which of the following is not true of friendship and social media?

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Which of the following is not true of friendship and social media?




A. Social networking sites are used to maintain current friendships and revive old ones.
B. If you have too few Facebook friends, people might perceive you to be less friendly.
C. The more friends you have on Facebook...the better.
D. Social media isn't a replacement for face-to-face communication.
E. Social networking sites are used primarily to build new relationships.






Answer: E

Some studies show that computer-mediated communication

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Some studies show that computer-mediated communication




A. always ensures intimacy.
B. enhances verbal, emotional, and social intimacy in interpersonal relationships.
C. is harmful to sustaining intimacy.
D. results in one level of self-disclosure.
E. None of these answers are correct.







Answer: B

Members of an individualistic culture like the United States

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Members of an individualistic culture like the United States





A. rarely show emotions
B. act more familiar with strangers and disclose more personal information
C. shy away from public displays of affection
D. disclose the same no matter what group is being disclosed to
E. are not considered very romantic






Answer: B

An intimate relationship

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An intimate relationship




A. may only exhibit one or two dimensions.
B. can be achieved by sharing activities.
C. can be created through exchanging important feelings.
D. can come from exchanging ideas.
E. All of these answer are correct.







Answer: E

Research of male and female intimacy styles shows that

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Research of male and female intimacy styles shows that




A. differences are not as great as some people might think.
B. women disclose more than men.
C. women disclose more personal information than men.
D. men grow close by doing things together.
E. All of these answer are correct.








Answer: E

Several organisms, primarily protists, have what are called intermediate mitotic organization. These protists are intermediate in what sense?

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Several organisms, primarily protists, have what are called intermediate mitotic organization.
These protists are intermediate in what sense? 





A) They reproduce by binary fission in their early stages of development and by mitosis when they are mature.
B) They never coil up their chromosomes when they are dividing.
C) They use mitotic division but only have circular chromosomes.
D) They maintain a nuclear envelope during division.
E) None of them form spindles.







Answer: D

You have a series of cells, all of which were derived from tumors, and you first need to find out which ones are malignant. What could you do?

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You have a series of cells, all of which were derived from tumors, and you first need to find out which ones are malignant. What could you do? 






A) See which ones are not overproliferating.
B) Find out which ones have a higher rate of apoptosis.
C) Karyotype samples to look for unusual size and number of chromosomes.
D) Measure metastasis.
E) Time their cell cycles.







Answer: C

For a chemotherapeutic drug to be useful for treating cancer cells, which of the following is most desirable?

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For a chemotherapeutic drug to be useful for treating cancer cells, which of the following is most desirable? 






A) It is safe enough to limit all apoptosis.
B) It does not alter metabolically active cells.
C) It only attacks cells that are density dependent.
D) It interferes with cells entering G0.
E) It interferes with rapidly dividing cells.





Answer: E

A research team began a study of a cultured cell line. Their preliminary observations showed them that the cell line did not exhibit either density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence. What could they conclude right away?

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A research team began a study of a cultured cell line. Their preliminary observations showed them that the cell line did not exhibit either density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence. What could they conclude right away? 






A) The cells originated in the nervous system.
B) The cells are unable to form spindle microtubules.
C) They have altered series of cell cycle phases.
D) The cells show characteristics of tumors.
E) They were originally derived from an elderly organism.






Answer: D

What explains anchorage dependence of animal cells in vitro or in vivo?

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What explains anchorage dependence of animal cells in vitro or in vivo? 




A) attachment of spindle fibers to centrioles
B) response of the plasma membrane to cell cycle controls
C) the makeup of the extracellular matrix of the substrate
D) the binding of cell-surface phospholipids to those of adjoining cells
E) the binding of cell-surface phospholipids to the substrate







Answer: B

At the M phase checkpoint, the complex allows for what to occur?

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At the M phase checkpoint, the complex allows for what to occur? 




A) Separase enzyme cleaves cohesins and allows chromatids to separate.
B) Cohesins alter separase to allow chromatids to separate.
C) Kinetochores are able to bind to spindle microtubules.
D) All microtubules are made to bind to kinetochores.
E) Daughter cells are allowed to pass into G1.





Answer: A

All cell cycle checkpoints are similar in which way?

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All cell cycle checkpoints are similar in which way? 






A) They respond to the same cyclins.
B) They utilize the same Cdks.
C) They give the go-ahead signal to progress to the next checkpoint.
D) They each have only one cyclin/Cdk complex.
E) They activate or inactivate other proteins.







Answer: E

Which of the following most accurately describes a cyclin?

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Which of the following most accurately describes a cyclin? 










A) It is present in similar concentrations throughout the cell cycle.
B) It is activated to phosphorylate by complexing with a Cdk.
C) It decreases in concentration when MPF activity increases.
D) It activates a Cdk molecule when it is in sufficient concentration.
E) It activates a Cdk when its concentration is decreased.





Answer: D

Why do neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently?

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Why do neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently? 





A) They no longer have active nuclei.
B) They no longer carry receptors for signal molecules.
C) They have been shunted into G0.
D) They can no longer bind Cdk to cyclin.
E) They show a drop in MPF concentration.







Answer: C

Cells from an advanced malignant tumor most often have very abnormal chromosomes, and often an abnormal total number of chromosomes. Why might this occur?

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Cells from an advanced malignant tumor most often have very abnormal chromosomes, and often an abnormal total number of chromosomes. Why might this occur? 





A) Cancer cells are no longer density dependent.
B) Cancer cells are no longer anchorage dependent.
C) Chromosomally abnormal cells can still go through cell cycle checkpoints.
D) Chromosomally abnormal cells still have normal metabolism.
E) Transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells.





Answer: C

A particular cyclin called cyclin E forms a complex with Cdk 2 (cyclin-dependent kinase 2). This complex is important for the progression of the cell from G1 into the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following statements is correct?

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A particular cyclin called cyclin E forms a complex with Cdk 2 (cyclin-dependent kinase 2). This complex is important for the progression of the cell from G1 into the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following statements is correct? 





A) The amount of free cyclin E is greatest during the S phase.
B) The amount of free Cdk 2 is greater during G1 compared to the S phase.
C) The amount of free cyclin E is highest during G1.
D) The amount of free Cdk 2 is greatest during G1.
E) The activity of the cyclin E/Cdk 2 complex is highest during G2.






Answer: C

Which of the following describe(s) cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)?

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Which of the following describe(s) cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)? 





A) Cdk is inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin.
B) Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle.
C) Cdk is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins.
D) Cdk is inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin and it is present throughout the cell cycle.
E) Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle and is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins.






Answer: E

Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?

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Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells? 





A) They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
B) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.
C) They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
D) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle, and they are not subject to cell cycle controls.
E) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle; they are not subject to cell cycle controls; and they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.






Answer: E

Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the following?

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Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the following? 





A) As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting their size and ability to produce control factors.
B) As cells become more numerous, the cell surface proteins of one cell contact the adjoining cells and they stop dividing.
C) As cells become more numerous, the protein kinases they produce begin to compete with each other, such that the proteins produced by one cell essentially cancel those produced by its neighbor.
D) As cells become more numerous, more and more of them enter the S phase of the cell cycle.
E) As cells become more numerous, the level of waste products increases, eventually slowing down metabolism.






Answer: B

A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?

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A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation? 








A) The cell would prematurely enter anaphase.
B) The cell would never leave metaphase.
C) The cell would never enter metaphase.
D) The cell would never enter prophase.
E) The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.




Answer: E

The MPF protein complex turns itself off by

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The MPF protein complex turns itself off by 





A) activating a process that destroys cyclin components.
B) activating an enzyme that stimulates cyclin.
C) binding to chromatin.
D) exiting the cell.
E) activating the anaphase-promoting complex.





Answer: A

What causes the decrease in the amount of cyclin at a specific point in the cell cycle?

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What causes the decrease in the amount of cyclin at a specific point in the cell cycle? 







A) an increase in production once the restriction point is passed
B) the cascade of increased production once its protein is phosphorylated by Cdk
C) the changing ratio of cytoplasm to genome
D) its destruction by a process initiated by the activity of its complex with a cyclin
E) the binding of PDGF to receptors on the cell surface





Answer: D

A plant-derived protein known as colchicine can be used to poison cells by blocking the formation of the spindle. Which of the following would result if colchicine is added to a sample of cells in G2?

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A plant-derived protein known as colchicine can be used to poison cells by blocking the formation of the spindle. Which of the following would result if colchicine is added to a sample of cells in G2? 





A) The cells would immediately die.
B) The cells would be unable to begin M and stay in G2.
C) The chromosomes would coil and shorten but have no spindle to which to attach.
D) The chromosomes would segregate but in a disorderly pattern.
E) Each resultant daughter cell would also be unable to form a spindle.







Answer: C

You have the technology necessary to measure each of the following in a sample of animal cells: chlorophylls, organelle density, picograms of DNA, cell wall components, and enzymatic activity. Which would you expect to increase significantly from M to G1?

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You have the technology necessary to measure each of the following in a sample of animal cells: chlorophylls, organelle density, picograms of DNA, cell wall components, and enzymatic activity. Which would you expect to increase significantly from M to G1? 





A) organelle density and enzymatic activity
B) cell wall components and DNA
C) chlorophyll and cell walls
D) organelle density and cell walls
E) chlorophyll and DNA







Answer: A

What is a cleavage furrow?

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What is a cleavage furrow? 





A) a ring of vesicles forming a cell plate
B) the separation of divided prokaryotes
C) a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei
D) the metaphase plate where chromosomes attach to the spindle
E) the space that is created between two chromatids during anaphase






Answer: C

Which of the following is (are) required for motor proteins to function in the movement of chromosomes toward the poles of the mitotic spindle?

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Which of the following is (are) required for motor proteins to function in the movement of chromosomes toward the poles of the mitotic spindle? 





A) intact centromeres
B) an MTOC (microtubule organizing center)
C) a kinetochore attached to the metaphase plate
D) ATP as an energy source
E) synthesis of cohesin





Answer: D

Which of the following is a function of those spindle microtubules that do not attach to kinetochores?

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Which of the following is a function of those spindle microtubules that do not attach to kinetochores? 





A) maintaining an appropriate spacing among the moving chromosomes
B) producing a cleavage furrow when telophase is complete
C) providing the ATP needed by the fibers attached to kinetochores
D) maintaining the region of overlap of microtubules in the cell's center
E) pulling the poles of the spindles closer to one another







Answer: D

Which of the following best describes how chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle during mitosis?

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Which of the following best describes how chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle during mitosis? 





A) The chromosomes are "reeled in" by the contraction of spindle microtubules.
B) Motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle microtubules.
C) Nonkinetochore spindle fibers serve to push chromosomes in the direction of the poles.
D) The chromosomes are "reeled in" by the contraction of spindle microtubules, and motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle microtubules.
E) The chromosomes are "reeled in" by the contraction of spindle microtubules, motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle microtubules, and nonkinetochore spindle fibers serve to push chromosomes in the direction of the poles.






Answer: D

Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?

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Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis? 





A) to increase their potential energy
B) to allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking
C) to allow the chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope
D) to allow the sister chromatids to remain attached
E) to provide for the structure of the centromere






Answer: B

For anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur?

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For anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur? 





A) Chromatids must lose their kinetochores.
B) Cohesin must attach the sister chromatids to each other.
C) Cohesin must be cleaved enzymatically.
D) Kinetochores must attach to the metaphase plate.
E) Spindle microtubules must begin to depolymerize.







Answer: C

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S and the end of G2?

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A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S and the end of G2? 





A) 8; 8
B) 8; 16
C) 16; 8
D) 16; 16
E) 12; 16






Answer: D

Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle did the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA?

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Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle did the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA? 





A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M






Answer: D

Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, Taxol must affect

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Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, Taxol must affect 





A) the formation of the mitotic spindle.
B) anaphase.
C) formation of the centrioles.
D) chromatid assembly.
E) the S phase of the cell cycle.






Answer: A

Suppose a biologist can separate one of a dozen pieces of chromatin from a eukaryotic (animal) nucleus. It might consist of which of the following?

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Suppose a biologist can separate one of a dozen pieces of chromatin from a eukaryotic (animal) nucleus. It might consist of which of the following? 




A) one-twelfth of the genes of the organism
B) two chromosomes, each with six chromatids
C) a single circular piece of DNA
D) two long strands of DNA plus proteins
E) two chromatids attached together at a centromere




Answer: D
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